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Server Time: 2/13/2012 7:07:48 PM PACIFIC |
 question on specific hold'em rule, erich, 7. Aug 2003 19:31 | ||
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| ok on ESPN2, 2 days ago, the 5th of aug in the afternoon, i was watching the 2003 world series poker competition. there was this one round where a guy had 9,9 and another guy had K,x and the community cards had 9,K,K,x,x (not in that order) and for some reason the guy with three 9's won? why don't the three K's win? i swear i checked the cards a million times to see if i was missing something but that was it. so i ask you, does a 3-of-a-kind with 2 of them in hole cards beat a 3-of-a-kind with 1 of them in hole cards? and if so, then does that logic apply to pairs? would a 9,9 beat a K,x with a K in the community pile? | ||
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| Re: question on specific hold'em rule, asnyder, 7. Aug 2003 19:47 | ||
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| He had a full house (9's full of K's), the other guy only had 3 K's. | ||
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| Re: question on specific hold'em rule, erich, 7. Aug 2003 19:59 | ||
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| damnit, i lost 15$ because of that. thank you for pointing that out. | ||
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| Re: question on specific hold'em rule, coach, 8. Aug 2003 08:55 | ||
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| 99 had a full house 3..9's 2 kings other player 3 K"s | ||
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| Re: question on specific hold'em rule, MozMan, 8. Aug 2003 10:59 | ||
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| As others have pointed out, the player with 99 had a boat, and the player with Kx only had trip-kings. Remeber that in HE, you make the best possible 5-card hand using your cards and the board. So if you have 99 and the board is 9KK24, then your best possible 5-cards hand is 999KK - full house. BUT if you have K8 and the board is 9KK24, your best possible 5-card hand is KKK98 - three of a kind. -Moz "Yeah, I've made up your mind." | ||
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| Re: question on specific hold'em rule, stdioh, 8. Aug 2003 15:01 | ||
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| I'm assuming you're not a mathematician. If you were, then the king hand obviously won because he had kings full of x's while the other hand only had 9's full of kings. I have a feeling that you meant KX had a board of 9KKyz :) | ||
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